All about preparing a Job Resume

A well written, attention grabbing resume is crucial to getting an interview. It is important to be concise, highlight your qualifications, and present yourself as a proactive employee. Recruiters will only briefly skim your resume to determine if you are worthy of an interview. Therefore, it must be easy for recruiters to find the information that sells them on you.

In order to more effectively showcase your skills and abilities, I will recommend making the improvements that I list below:

Don’t use objective statements:

Objective statements focus on what you want (i.e. to obtain a job in the CPG industry), not what the employer wants. Don’t waste valuable real estate on an objective. Use the top of your resume to emphasize your competitive advantage and most relevant skills. Make sure that your resume sells yourself to the hiring in manager in one glance.

Be concise:

 Long paragraphs can be time consuming and cumbersome to read. Since most employers will simply scan your resume, it is important that your best attributes don’t get lost in a sea of words. Be sure not to bury pertinent information in a lengthy paragraph.

Don’t include references:

 Employers know that you will provide your references to them at their request. So, don’t waste valuable real estate by stating this fact on your resume. Wait for the appropriate time and place to provide this information and use this space to convince the recruiter that he/she can’t live without you.

Don’t use 1st, 2nd, or 3rd person references:

 A resume is a formal document in which convention calls for you to eliminate the use of 1st, 2nd, and 3rd person references. A resume that is well put together shows professionalism and an understanding of appropriate word choice.

Use action verbs:

 A resume filled with action verbs gives the impression that you are someone with a “can do” attitude. Your resume vocabulary sends a message of its own. Make sure that message isn’t that you are a passive employee, but a proactive one who will drive results.

Don’t date yourself:

 You don’t need to include dates older than 10 years in your resume. If you graduated from college over 10 years ago, simply list the degree and leave off the date. The employer only needs to know that you have it – their focus is on what you have been doing for the last 10 years. If you include dates older than 10 years, an employer might make inferences about your age before they even meet you. Protect yourself from age discrimination and just leave those old dates off.

Include a quick synopsis of what you have to offer:

 When an employer glances at your resume, what will they see? A brief summary of who you are and what you have to offer? If not, you might get passed over. I recommend that you grab the hiring managers attention with a brief overview of your most impressive and relevant strengths.After you re-write your resume, don’t forget to check your spelling, grammar, and punctuation before using it to apply for a position. More often than not, people overlook their own spelling and grammatical errors.

I recommend having several trusted friends and colleagues review your resume to verify that it is easy to understand and free of inconsistencies and minor mistakes. Keep in mind that your resume is a marketing tool. You must display only the most pertinent and impressive pieces of your experience.

 

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Capgemini Paper

1. Fresh Grapes contain 90% water by wt. Dried grapes contain 20% water by %age. What will be wt of dried grapes when we begin with 20 kg fresh grapes?
a)2kg  b) 2.4kg  c) 2.5kg d) none

Answer. C

2. How many 5 digit no. can be formed wit digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 which are divisible by 4 and digits not repeated?
a)144   b)168  c)192  d) none

Answer. C

3. There is a rectangular Garden whose length and width are 60m X 20m. There is a walk way of uniform width around garden. Area of walkway is 516m^2. Find width of walkway?
a)1  b)2  c)3  d)4

Answer. C

4.If 1= (3/4)(1+ (y/x) ) then
a)x=3y  b)  x=y/3 c) x=(2/3)y d) none

Answer. A

5. The sum of six consecutive odd nos. is 888. What is the average of the nos.?

a)147  b)148  c)149 d) 146

Ans: B

6. 1,27,125,?,729,1331 find missing number.

Ans: 343

7.  Find approx value of 39.987/0.8102+1.987*18.02
a)72  b)56  c)86  d)44

Ans: C

8. Asish was given Rs. 158 in denominations of Rs 1 each. He distributes these in diff bags, such that ne sum of money of denomination betn 1 and 158 can be given in bags. The min no. of such bags reqd?
a)10  b)17  c)15  d) none

Solution is 8.
Ans: D

9. If a certain sum of money at SI doubles itself in 5 years then what is the  rate?
a)5%      b) 10%       c)25%          d)20%

Ans: D

10. A man engaged a servant on a condition that he’ll pay Rs 90 and also give him a bag at the end of the year. He served for 9 months and was given a turban and Rs 65. So the price of turban is ?
i)Rs 10 II) Rs 19 iii)Rs 0 iv)Rs 55

Ans: A (after taking bag’s price and turban price same, question is not perfect.)

11. The sum of six consecutive odd nos. is 888. What is the average of the nos.?
i. 147     ii. 148       iii. 149       iv. 146

Ans: B

12.  In a race from pt. X to pt Y and back, Jack averages 30miles/hr to pt Y and 10 miles/hr back to pr X.Sandy averages 20 miles/hr in both directions. If Jack and Sandy start race at same tym, who’ll finish 1st ?

Jack/Sandy/they tie/Impossible to tell

Ans: they tie

13.  2 men at same tym start walking towards each other from A n B 72 kms apart. sp of A is 4kmph.Sp of  B is 2 kmph in 1st hr,2.5 in 2nd, 3 in rd. n so on…when will they meet?v

i) in 7 hrs ii) at 35 kms from A iii)in 10 hrs iv) midway

Ans: D

14.  If the ratio of prod of 3 diff comp’s A B & C is 4:7:5 and of overall prod last year was 4lac tones and if each comp had an increase of 20% in prod level this yr what is the prod of Comp B this year?

i. 2.1L ii. 22.1L iii. 4.1L iv. none

Ans: A

15. If 70% of a no. is subtracted from itself it reduces to 81.what is two fifth of that no.?
108/54/210/none

Ans. A

16. If radius of cylinder and sphere are same and vol of sphere and cylinder are same what is the ratio between the radius and height of the cylinder
i.  R= H ii. R= (3/4)H iii. R = (4/3)H iv. R=2/3H

Ans: B

17. Which one of the foll fractions is arranged in ascending order

i. 9/11,7/9,11/13,13/14

ii. 7/8,9/11,11/13,13/14

iii. 9/11,11/13,7/8,13/14

iv. none

Ans: C

18. 10^10/10^4*10^2=10^?
i. 8 ii. 6 iii.  4 iv. none

Ans: A

19. Units digit in expansion os 2 raised to 51 is:

2/4/6/8

Ans: D

20. Three wheels make 36, 24, 60 rev/min. Each has a black mark on it. It is aligned at the start of the qn. When does it align again for the first time?

14/20/22/5 sec

Ans 6 sec not in option

21. Some question on area which are in hectare and some values are in kilometer so firstly know conversion of km^2.

Hectare

22. In a Triangle ABC , AD is perpendicular to BC ,BD is 15m,and angle B is 30 degree, find  AC?

Ans: 5(closest option)

24. 3,7,11,………………….,407. find 20th term from last.

Ans: 331

25. One  question on  share. Hey friends solve quest on share and dividend it will be better

Section B

Direction for Questions 1-4

An employee has to allocate offices to 6 staff members. The offices are no. 1-6. the offices are arranged in a row and they are separated from each other by dividers (hence voices, sounds and cigarette smoke flow easily from one office to another)

Miss R needs to use the telephone quite often throughout the day. Mr. M and Mr. B need adjacent offices as they need to consult each other often while working. Miss H is a senior employee and his to be allotted the office no. 5, having the biggest window.

Mr. D requires silence   in office next to his. Mr. T, Mr. M and Mr. D are all smokers. Miss H finds tobacco smoke allergic and consecutively the offices next to hers are occupied by non-smokers. Unless specifically stated all the employees maintain an atmosphere of silence during office hours.

Solution: Arrangements=       D  T  M  B  H  R.

1. The ideal candidate to occupy office farthest from Mr. B will be
i. Miss H  ii. Mr. M  iii. Mr. T  iv. Mr. D

Ans: D

2. The three employees who are smokers should be seated in the offices
i.    1 2 4  ii.    2 3 6  iii.   1 2 3  iv.   1 2 3

Ans: C

3. The ideal office for Mr. M would be
i. 2  ii. 6  iii. 1  iv. 3

Ans: D

4. In the event of what occurrence within a period of one month since the assignment of the offices would a request for a change in office be put forth by one or more employees?

i.  Mr D quitting smoking
ii.  Mr. T taking over duties formally taken care of by Miss R
iii. The installation of a water cooler in Miss H’s office
iv. Mr. B suffering from anemia

Ans: D(as already on this site)

Direction for Questions 5-7

Ten coins are distr. Among 4 people P, Q, R, S such that one of them gets a coin, another gets 2 coins,3rd gets 3 coins, and 4th gets 4 coins. It is known that Q gets more coins than P, and S gets fewer coins than R

5. If the no. of coins distr. To Q is twice the no. distr. to P then which one of the following. is necessarily true?

i. R gets even no. of coins
ii.  R gets odd no. of coins
iii. S gets even no. of coins
iv. S gets odd no. of coins

Ans: D

6. If R gets at least two more coins than S which one of the following is necessarily true?

i. Q gets at least 2 more coins than S
ii. Q gets more coins than P
iii. P gets more coins than S
iv. P and Q together get at least five coins

Ans: B

7. If Q gets fewer coins than R, then which one of the following is not necessarily true?

i.  P and Q together get at least 4 coins
ii. Q and S together get at least 4 coins
iii.R and S together get at least 5 coins
iv.P and R together get at least 5 coins

Ans: A

Direction for Questions 8-9

Elle is  3 times older than Zaheer. Zaheer is ½ as old as Waheeda. Yogesh is elder than Zaheer.

8. What is sufficient to estimate Elle’s age?

i. Zaheer is 10 yrs old
ii. Yogesh and Waheeda are both older than Zaheer by the same no of yrs.
iii. Both of the above
iv. None of the above

Ans: A

9. Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the info above

i. Yogesh is elder than Waheeda
ii. Elle is older than Waheeda
iii. Elle’s age may be less than that of Waheeda
iv. None of  the above

Ans:B

Questions 10-11 are based on situations given below:

7 Uni crick players are to be honored at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on a dais along one side of a single rectangular table.

A and G have to leave the luncheon early and must be seated at the extreme right end of table, which is closest to exit.

B will receive Man of the Match and must be in the centre chair

C and D who are bitter rivals for the position of Wicket keeper dislike one another and should be seated as far apart as possible

E and F are best friends and want to seat together.

10. Which of the foll may not be seated at either end of the table?
i. C  ii. D  iii. G iv. F

Ans: iv

11. Which of the foll pairs may not be seated together?
i. E & A  ii. B & D  iii. C & F iv. G & D

Ans: i

Direction for Questions 12-13

A robot moves on a graph sheet with x-y axes. The robot is moved by feeding it with a sequence of instructions. The different instructions that can be used in moving it, and their meanings are:

Instruction        Meaning

GOTO(x,y)      move to pt with co-ord (x,y) no matter where u are currently

WALKX(P)     move parallel to x-axis through a distance of p, in the +ve direction if p is +ve and in –ve if p     is –ve

WALKY(P)     move parallel to y-axis through a distance of p, in the +ve direction if p is +ve and in –ve if p is –ve

12. The robot reaches point (5,6) when a sequence of 3 instr. Is executed, the first of which is GOTO(x,y) , WALKX(2), WALKY(4). What are the values of x and y??
i. 2,4  ii. 0,0 iii. 3,2  iv. 2,3

Ans: C

13. The robot is initially at (x.y), x>0 and y<0. The min no. of Instructions needed to be executed to bring it to origin (0,0) if you are prohibited from using GOTO instr. Is:

i. 2  ii. 1  ii. x + y  iv. 0

Ans: i

Direction for Questions 14-17

Question are simple
Suppose X*Y : X is father of Y and more like this, you have 2 find relation for Z is grand father of X

Direction for Questions 18-24.

Ans A using I only
Ans B  using II only
Ans C using both I and II
Ans D not solvable

18. Raman and Gaurav Brought eggs from a vendor. How many eggs were bought by each of them

i. Raman bought half as many as Gaurav
ii. The dealer had a stock of 500 eggs at the beginning of day

Ans: D

19. What is the age of Ramprakash?

i. Ramprakash was born when his father was 26 yrs old
ii. Ramprakash’s mothers age is 3yrs less than his father’s

Ans: D

20. How much time is reqd for downloading the software?

i. The Data transfer rate is 6 kbps
ii. The size of the software is 4.5 megabytes

Ans: C

21. Sanjay and Vijay started their journey from Mumbai to Pune. Who reached Pune first?

i. Sanjay overtakes two times Vijay and Vijay overtakes Sanjay two times
ii. Sanjay started first

Ans: C

22. A boat can ferry 1500 passengers across a river in 12 hrs. How many round trips does it make during the journey?

i. The boat can carry 400 passengers at a time
ii. During its journey, the boat takes 40 mins time each way and 20 mins waiting time at each end.

Ans: C

23. What are the values of m and n?

i. n is an even integer, m is odd integer and m is greater than n.
ii. The product of m and n is 30

Ans: C

24. How much is the weight of 20 mangoes and 30 oranges?

i. 1 orange weighs twice that of 1 mango
ii. 2 mangoes and 3 oranges weigh 2 kg

Ans: B

25. Is the GDP of country X higher than Country Y?

i. GDP’s of X and Y has been increasing at a compounded annual growth rate of 5% and 6% over he past 5 years
ii. 5 years ago GDP of X was 1.2 times Y

Ans:  C.

Aptitude Interview Questions

• You are given two candles of equal size, which can burn 1 hour each. You have to measure 90 minutes with these candles. (There is no scale or clock). Also u r given a lighter.

Ans: 1. First light up the two ends of the 1st candle. When it will burn out light up one end of the second candle. (30+60=90)

• You r given a thermometer. What can u do by this without measuring the temperature?

Ans: if u put thermometer into a tree it won’t grow anymore, will just die off

• You are a landscape designer and your boss asked u to design a landscape such that you should place 4 trees equidistance from each other.

(Distance from each tree to the other must be same)

Ans: Only 3 points can be equidistant from each other. But if u place points in the shape of a pyramid then its possible

• You are given a cake; one of its corner is broken. How will u cut the rest into Two equal parts?

Ans: Slice the cake

• How will you recognize the magnet & magnetic material & non-magnetic material?

Ans: Drag one piece of material over another. There is no attractive force in the middle portion of the magnet. OR
Get a piece of thread and tie up with the one bar and check for poles. If it iron bar then it moves freely and if it is magnetic bar then it fix in one direction according to poles.

• If one tyre of a car suddenly gets stolen and after sometime u find the tyre without the screws how will u make ur journey complete?

Ans: Open 3 screws, 1 from each tyre and fix the tyre.

• How can u measure a room height using a thermometer?

Ans: temp varies with height. but its dependent on various other factors like humidity, wind etc.

• What is the height of room if after entering the room with a watch your head strikes a hanging bulb?

Ans: Oscillate the hanging bulb. Calculate the time period for one complete oscillation by Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) of the handing bulb. Put it in the formula T=2 * 3.14 * (L/G)^1/2 L will be the length of the hanging thread. Add the L with ur height to get the height of the room.

• How will you measure height of building when you are at the top of the building? And if you have stone with you.

Ans: Drop the stone and find the time taken for the stone to reach the ground. find height using the formula
s = a + gt ( s = height, a= initial velocity=0, g=9.8m/s, t = time taken)

• There are three people A, B, C. Liars are of same type and Truth speaking people are of same type. Find out who is speaking truth and who is speaking false from the following statements:

a) A says: B is a liar.
b) B says: A and C are of same type.

Ans: lets assume A is speaking truth. It means B is a liar then it means A and C are not of same type.

• In a race u drove 1st lap with 40kmph and in the second lap at what speed u must drive so that ur average speed must be 80kmph.

Ans: its impossible! if u drove the first lap in 40 kmph, its impossible that the average speed of both the laps is 80kmph.
for eg. consider one lap distance = 80km.
time req. to cover 1 lap = 80km/40kmph = 2 hrs.

if the avg. speed is 80kmph, then the total time would have taken = 160kms/80kmph = 2 hrs.
same is the case with any other distance u consider. so the avg to be 80kmph is impossible

• You have to draw 3 concentric circles with a line passing thru their center without lifting hand.

Ans: Start the line complete one circle move inside circles along the line and then draw second circle. Like wise rest.

• A rectangular paper is there. At a corner a rectangular size paper is taken from it. Now you have to cut the remaining paper into two equal halves.

Ans: try it on the paper. You must fold the part that has complete paper and select Half of it and then fold the part that cut and selects half of it and then cut along the folding.

• Value of (x-a)(x-b). . . . (x-z)

Ans: 0 as there’s X-X term

• There are 9 coins. 8 are of 1 gm and 1 is of 2 grams. How will you find out the heavier coin in minimum number of weighing and how many weighing it will need?

Ans: 2 weighing ( Divide the number of coins into 3 parts at each weighing)

• If a bear walks one mile south, turns left and walks one mile to the east and then turns left again and walks one mile north and arrives at its original position, what is the color of the bear.

ANS. The color of the bear is trivial. The possible solutions to it are interesting. In addition to the trivial north pole, there are additional circles near south pole. Think it out.

• Given a rectangular (cuboidal for the puritans) cake with a rectangular piece removed (any size or orientation), how would you cut the remainder of the cake into two equal halves with one straight cut of a knife?

ANS. Join the centers of the original and the removed rectangle. It works for cuboids too! BTW, I have been getting many questions asking why a horizontal slice across the middle will not do. Please note the “any size or orientation” in the question! Don’t get boxed in by the way you cut your birthday cake :) Think out of the box.

Dell – Placement Paper Pattern

1. There can be no arguing against a ___________ of mass public _________ and distribution of medicines, as in the UK.
1) trend, awareness 2) notion, welfare
2) phenomenon, acceptance
3) system, procurement
4) backdrop, campaign

2. The government should ________ with the industry about what would be a _________ price for certain essential drugs.
1) negotiate, reasonable
2) deal, transparent
3) appeal, negotiable
4) raise, genuine
5) refrain, uniform

3. Malnourishment of Indian children is mostly due to traditional taboos __________ with certain vital foods, and not due to their _____________.
1) containing, unavailability
2) embraced, locality
3) associated, scarcity
4) raised, nutrition
5) inserted, quality

4. During his mandate, the secretary-general will face the _________ challenge of ________ a global agreement on climate change.
1) grave, drawing
2) pressing, forging
3) massive, framing
4) umpteen, sentencing
5) detrimental, inking

5. The key for today’s UN is not to _______ more goals, but to ________ those that have been set before.
1) bargain, offload
2) address, justify
3) superseded, avail
4) amen, respond
5) create, implement

Directions (Q.6-14 ) :  Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Farmers belonging to the Bharatiya Kishan Union have set fire to the trial plots of a Bt rice variety belonging to Mahyco that was being field-tested in Karnal. It turns out that the trial were being conducted in violation of biosafety standards. Farmers on whose fields the trials were being conducted had no idea what was planted, nor did they understand the implications of genetically-engineered (GE) rice containing the toxin gene from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (BT)
Apart from the safety issue of eating genetically-engineered foods containing poison genes, there are other aspects that are particularly relevant to GE rice and India. India is an exporter of both Basmati and non-Basmati rice and has significant trade interests in this crop. If Indian rice were to be contaminated with genetically-engineered Bt rice, which is certain to happen, traders would lose their traditional rice markets in the European Union, Africa and the Middle East. All these regions have declared their opposition to genetically-engineered foods. That is the reason why rice exporters have appealed to government to halt further trials of GE rice.

India shouldn’t take the risk of cultivating GE rice not just from the trade point of view but also because it is a major centre of origin for rice. Mexico, which is the centre of origin and diversity for corn, has imposed a ban on not just the cultivation of GE corn, but also research in GE corn. Mexico has taken this position in order to safeguard the natural gene pool of corn, another major staple food of the world. India is one of the centres where rice originated. This means that the greatest number of rice and related genes are found in India.

Centres of origin are considered high-risk areas for GE crops because if foreign genes contained in the GE variety were to move into the natural gene pool, the results could be potentially catastrophic. Scientists promoting agbiotech argue that rice is a self-pollinating crop and will not accept outside pollen and genes. This is not true since cross -pollination is known to occur in rice and there are several studies that show that the extend of cross- pollination depending on humidity and wind speed, can in fact be significantly high. Studies conducted in China and Latin America have shown that gene flow between GE rice and other rice happens at rates that are high enough to cause concern about gene transfer.

One of the growing concerns about the impact of genetic engineering is gene-silencing. Experimental show that the introduction of foreign genes can cause gene-silencing in the plant that is receiving the foreign gene. This means certain genes in the plant will become silent (non- functional) and not produce what they normally should. Gene-silencing could have very grave implication if it were to spread to the natural gene pool by careless scientists.
Maintaining genetic diversity is crucial for the long-term survival of any crop. When a crop variety somewhere becomes vulnerable either due to the onslaught of a disease or the soil becoming waterlogged or alkaline, scientists need to breed another variety of the crop for that region. They do this by searching for suitable genes in related varieties and the natural gene pool of rice and introduce harmful features like gene-silencing or change the normal functions of other genes, it would have terrible implications for food security of the rice-eating regions of the world.

Although genetically-engineered crops and foods are being pushed into the market, there is little investment in their regulation and monitoring. Apart from that, not enough is understood about what happens when foreign genes are abruptly pushed into the genetic material of plants and animals. That is the reason why the biosafety process places such a premium on the precautionary principle. Essentially this says that when faced with uncertainty, it is better to be cautious and not proceed with genetic engineering.

6. What was the role of the farmers who gave their lands for field testing of Bt rice in Karnal?
1) They gave their lands for the testing against heavy rental.
2) They were in support of such a high-yield variety of the crop.
3) They were ignorant the consequence of such a trial.
4) They were in search of some experimentation in rice production.
5) None of these

7. What keeps India in a commanding position in rice export to various foreign countries?
1) Indian varieties of rice are considered to be in natural and pure form.
2) India has cheaper varieties of rice compared to other countries.
3) India has surplus rice production every year.
4) India has gained numero uno position in terms of quality and variety of rice.
5) None of these

8. What could be a major consequence if cultivation of GE rice is allowed in India?
1) It will give the foreign countries an easy entry into our agriculture sector.
2) It will open the path for research and experimentation in the field of agriculture.
3) It will increase the profit margins of our farmers.
4) It will make our country depending on foreign technology.
5) None of these

9. What should we do to maintain the natural gene pool of rice in our country?
1) We should not open our agriculture sector to the forces of globalization.
2) We should protect it from being mixed with other breeds and genes.
3) We should revise our policy of export of food grains.
4) We should complete with the genetically-engineered rice produced in foreign countries.
5) None of these

10. Which of the following seems to be ‘true’ in the context of the passage?
1) Mexico has banned the cultivation of GE rice.
2) India has maintained its natural gene pool of corn so far.
3) GE rice has made its firm ground in our country.
4) GE crops can pose health hazards to mankind.
5) None of these

11. Which of the following seems to be ‘false’ in the context of the passage?
1) Cross-pollination is not possible in the case of rice.
2) Mexico has taken measures against GE corn.
3) Introduction of GE rice is facing resistance in our country.
4) GE crops are unsafe for human consumption.
5) None of these

12. What do you mean by gene-silencing in a crop?
1) Gene silencing in a crop is a technique in which different varieties of a crop grown together.
2) Gene silencing is a scientific term which is applied to boost the yield of a crop.
3) In gene silencing method the application of foreign gene to any variety of crop increase its yield.
4) The introduction of alien gene to a crop makes its natural gene dysfunct.
5) None of these

13. What message is given in this passage?
1) Save agriculture from the onslaught of globalization
2) Protect the original variety of rice
3) Ban the import of foreign food grains
4) Say no to scientific experiment in agriculture
5) None of these

Answers

1. (4)
2. (1)
3. (3)
4. (2)
5. (5)
6. (3)
7. (1)
8. (5)
9. (2)
10. (4)
11. (1)
12. (4)
13. (2)

Placement Paper Of Dell

1. Three bells rings at the intervals of 36 seconds, 40 seconds and 48 seconds respectively. They start ringing together at a particular time. When they will start ringing together again?
(1)After 6 minutes
(2) After 12 minutes
(3)After 18 minutes
(4) After 24 minutes

2. The sum of one-half, one-third and one-fourth of a number exceeds the number by 12. The number is
(1)144
(2) 154
(3) 90
(4) 174

3. A farmer divides his herd of x cows among his 4 sons so that one son gets one half of the herd, the second gets one-fourth, the third gets one-fifth and the fourth gets 7 cows. Then x is equal to
(1) 100
(2) 140
(3)180
(4) 160

4. If the list price of a book is reduced by Rs. 5, then a person can buy 5 more books for Rs. 300. The original cost of the book is
(1) Rs. 15
(2) Rs. 20
(3) Rs. 25
(4) Rs. 30

5. A man has only 20-paise and 25-paise coins in a bag. If he has 50 coins in all totaling to Rs.11.25, then the number of 20-paise coins is
(1) 28
(2) 27 1
(3)26
(4) 25

6. Jayant gets 3 marks for each right sum and loses 2 marks for each wrong sum. He attempts 30 sums and obtains 40 marks. The number of sums attempted correctly is
(1) 25
(2) 20
(3) 26
(4) 27

Complete the following number series:
7. 1, 1, 3, 9, 5, 25, 7, 49 _, 81
(1)7
(2) 9
(3) 8
(4) 10

8. 5, 11, 23, 41, 64, _
(1)89
(2) 95
(3) 101
(4) 105

Directions (9-11):   Study the information given below to answer these questions.
Mark your answer as:
(i) If both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(ii) If both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(iii) If A is correct but R is wrong.
(iv) If A wrong but R is correct.

9. Assertion (A): A saltwater fish drinks sea water where a fresh water fish never drinks water.
Reason (R): A saltwater fish is hyper tonic to its environment while a freshwater fish is hypotonic to its environment.

10. Assertion (A): The territory of India is larger than the territories of the States taken together.
Reason (R): India is a Union of States.

11. Assertion (A): Alcohol rather than mercury is used in a thermometer to measure a temperature of 60o C.
Reason (R): Alcohol has a lower freezing point then mercury.

Directions (12-13):  On the basis of given statements answer the following questions: All good athletes want win and all athletes who want to win, eat a well-balanced diet. Therefore, all athletes who do not eat a well-balanced diet are bad athletes.

12. If assumptions of the argument above are true, then which of the following statements must be true?
1) No athlete who does not eat a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.
2) No bad athlete wants to win.
3) Every athlete who eats a well-balanced diet is a good athlete.
4) All athletes who want to win are good athletes.

13. Which of the following if true, would refute the assumptions of argument above?
1) Bob, the accountant, eats a well-balanced diet, but he is not a good athlete.
2) Ann wants to win, but she is not a good athlete.
3) All the players on the Burros baseball team eat a well-balanced diet.
4) Cindy, the basketball star, does not eat a well-balanced diet, but she is a good athlete.

Directions (Q.14-18):  In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts, arrange them properly and find out which of the five combinations given below is appropriate, and mark it as your answer.

14.
1. The latest move
P. women is being opposed
Q. to reserve one-third of
R. tooth and nail by
S. the electoral seats for
6. some political parties.
1) SPQR
2) QSPR
3) SRPQ
4) PRQS
5) SPRQ

15.
1. One of the most pernicious
P. ancient scriptures is that
Q. of the system of caste hierarchy,
R. and reactionary feudal survivals
S. sanctified by some
6. exploitation and oppression.
1) PQRS
2) SRQP
3) PRQS
4) QSPR
5) RSPQ

16.
1. Experience as well as
P. tells us that any attempt
Q. at a forced equalisation of income
R. modern economic theory
S. and wealth destroys the incentives
6. that encourage efficiency.
1) RPQS
2) SPRQ
3) PSQR
4) QRPS
5) PQRS

17.
1. The chances of electoral success
P. for liberals would certainly improve
Q. under the banner of
R. a liberal party with its
S. if they could fight
6. own electoral symbol.
1) SQRP
2) RPSQ
3) PSQR
4) RQPS
5) QRSP

18.
1. The author has pointed an
P. of the community who
Q. accusing finger at the Muslim intelligentsia
R. maintain a stoic silence over the
S. and the dominant members
6. bizarre happenings in Kashmir.
1) QSPR
2) RPSQ
3) SQRP
4) PQRS
5) SRQP

Passage :
Efforts are on to generate favourable public opinion for allowing our government to sign the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT). It appears the government has been trying to sell to opposition parties and the public the following point:
Our nuclear scientists are sure that with the Pokhran “II tests, conducted in May 1998, they have “enough data, expertise and skills to conduct sub-critical test and maintain our deterrence for the next 25 years or so, and therefore, we can go ahead sign the CTBT. India does not need any further nuclear test for weaponisation and for acquiring a minimum deterrent. If we sign the CTBT now, there will be every possibility of the American Government supporting India to get a permanent seat in the United Nations Security Council. There will be favourable world opinion and it will result in many advantages to India.

19. What do you make out of the expression that the Pokhran ” II tests are enough to maintain our deterrence for the next 25 years or so?
1)It will make our enemy cautions enough to attack us in the coming years.
2)We can confront our enemies with its help in the near future.
3)We will have a greater say in the international context by going nuclear.
4)It is enough to maintain our superiority in the region for the next two and a half decades or so.
5)None of these

20.Our government feels that if we sign the CTBT now, then America will certainly 1stand in the way of India to get a permanent seat in the United Nations Security Council.
1)back India in getting a permanent seat in United Nations Security Council.
2)have no power to obstruct India’s chance in getting a permanent seat in the United Nations Security Council.
3)feel pressurized to not allow India acquire a permanent seat in the United Nations Security Council.
4)None of these

21.The passage mainly presents the answer to which of the following questions?
1)What are the benefits of signing the CTBT?
2)What are the advantages of our Pokhran ” II tests?
3)Why should we oblige the US?
4)Where do we stand in the world today?
5)None of these

22.Give the synonym of the word expertise as given in bold in the passage.
1)equipment
2)materials
3)process
4)proficiency
5)technique

23.Give the antonym of the word favourble as given in bold in the passage.
1)hesitant
2)confusing
3)bewildering
4)fluctuating
5)hostile

Directions (24-25):   In each of the number series given in these questions, the two terms have been put within brackets. Mark your answer as :
(1) If the first bracketed term is right and second is wrong.
(2) If both the bracketed terms are right.
(3) If the first bracketed term is wrong and the second is right.
(4) If both the bracketed terms are wrong.

24. 4, 6, 10, (12), 16, (14), 22

25. 3, 10, 29, (66), (127), 218

ANSWERS :  1.(2)   2.(1)   3.(2)   4.(2)   5.(4)   6.(2)   7.(2)   8.(2)   9. (1)   10. (2)   11. (2) 12.   (1) 13.   (4)   14. (2)   15. (5)  16. (1)   17. (3)   18. (1)   19.(1)   20. (2)   21. (1)   22. (4)   23. (5)   24. (1)   25. (2)

ACCENTURE PAPER 5

Directions for Questions 1-3: Choose the option which will correctly fill the blank.

1. This train travels from London ______ Paris.
A. at    B. to    C. over   D. below
Ans: B

2. We stood at the back ______ the theater.
A. of   B. on   C. in   D. for
Ans: of

3. I will work _________ five o’clock.
A. until   B. up   C. in   D. to

Directions for Questions 4-6: Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word in ITALICS from the given options.

4. The antidote to these problems is hard to find
A. Cause for  B. Result of  C. Remedy for  D. Consequence of  E. None of these
Ans: C

5. Because of a family feud, he never spoke to his aife’s parents.
A. Crisis   B. Trouble   C. Problem   D. Quarrel   E. None of these
Ans: D

6. The article is written in a very lucid style.
A. Elaborate    B. Clear   C. Intricate   D. Noble   E. None of these
Ans: B

Directions for Questions 7-10: Choose the answer option which will correctly fill the blank.

7. _________ man ran into the street. A car hit ____ man.
A. A, the   B. An, the   C. the, the   D. A, the

8. The interesting thing about _____ Romans is all the roads that they built in Britain.
A. A    B. An   C. none of these   D. The

9. Albert Einstein was _____ famous scientist. Einstein won _______ Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921.Einstein left his country and lived in _______ States until he died in 1955.
A) A, the, an    B) A, the, the   C) A, an, the   D) An, an, the
Ans: B

10. Are you shopping for ________ health club to join so you can get in shape? Shop wisely! You could end up choosing _______ wrong club and losing more money than pounds.
A) the, an   B) the, the   C) A,  the   D) An, the
Ans: C

Directions for Questions 11-16:
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
The pioneers of the teaching of science imagined that its introduction into education would remove the conventionality, artificiality, and backward-lookingness which were characteristic;of classical studies, but they were gravely disappointed. So, too, in  their time had the humanists thought that the study of the classical authors in the original would banish at once the dull pedantry and superstition of mediaeval scholasticism. The professional schoolmaster was a match for both of them, and has almost managed to make the understanding of chemical reactions as dull and as dogmatic an affair as the reading of Virgil’s Aeneid. The chief claim for the use of science in education is that it teaches a child something about the actual universe in which he is living, in making him acquainted with the results of scientific discovery, and at the same time teaches him how to think logically and inductively by studying scientific method. A certain limited success has been reached in the first of these aims, but practically none at all in the second. Those privileged members of the community who have been through a secondary or public school education may be expected to know something about the elementary physics and chemistry of a hundred years ago, but they probably know hardly more than any bright boy can pick up from an interest in wireless or scientific hobbies out of school hours. As to the learning of scientific method, the whole thing is palpably a farce. Actually, for the convenience of teachers and the  requirements of the examination system, it is necessary that the  pupils not only do not learn scientific method but learn precisely  the reverse, that is, to believe exactly what they are told and to reproduce it when asked, whether it seems nonsense to them or not. The way in which educated people respond to such quackeries  as spiritualism or astrology, not to say more dangerous ones such as racial theories or currency myths, shows that fifty years of education in the method of science in Britain or Germany has produced no visible effect whatever. The only way of learning the method of science is the long and bitter way of personal experience, and, until the educational or social systems are altered  to make this possible, the best we can expect is the production of a  minority of people who are able to acquire some of the techniques of science and a still smaller minority who are able to use and  develop them.

11. The author implies that the ‘professional schoolmaster’ has
A. no interest in teaching science
B. thwarted attempts to enliven education
C. aided true learning
D. supported the humanists
E. been a pioneer in both science and humanities.
Ans: B

12. The author’s attitude to secondary and public school education in the sciences is
A. ambivalent   B. neutra   C. supportive   D. satirical   E. contemptuous
Ans: E

13. The word ‘palpably’ most nearly means
A. empirically   B. obviously   C. tentatively   D. markedly   E. ridiculously
Ans: B

14. The author blames all of the following for the failure to impart scientific method through the education system except
A. poor teaching
B. examination methods
C. lack of direct experience
D. the social and education systems
E. lack of interest on the part of students
Ans: E

15. If the author were to study current education in science to see how things have changed since he wrote the piece, he would probably be most interested in the answer to which of the following questions?
A. Do students know more about the world about them?
B. Do students spend more time in laboratories?
C. Can students apply their knowledge logically?
D. Have textbooks improved?
E. Do they respect their teachers
Ans: C

16. Astrology (line 31) is mentioned as an example of
A. a science that needs to be better understood
B. a belief which no educated people hold
C. something unsupportable to those who have absorbed the methods of science
D. the gravest danger to society
E. an acknowledged failure of science
Ans: C

Directions for Questions 17-20: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
Furthermore, insofar as any conclusion about its author can be drawn from five or six plays attributed to him, the Wakefield Master is without exception considered to be a man of sharp contemporary observation. He was, probably clerically educated, as indicated by his Latin and music, his Biblical and patristic lore. Even today he is remembered for his his quick sympathy for the oppressed and forgotten man, his sharp eye for character, a ready ear for colloquial, vernacular turns of speech and a humor alternately rude and boisterous, coarse and happy. Therefore in spite of his conscious artistry as can be seen in his feeling for intricate metrical and stanza forms, he is regarded as a kind of medieval Steinbeck, indignantly angry at, uncompromisingly and even brutally realistic in presenting the plight of the agricultural poor.
It is now fairly accepted to regard the play as a kind of ultimate point in the secularization of the medieval drama. Therefore more stress has been laid on it as depicting realistically humble manners and pastoral life in the bleak of the west riding of Yorkshire on a typically cold night of December 24th. After what are often regarded as almost “documentaries” given in the three successive monologues of the three shepherds, critics go on to affirm that the realism is then intensified into a burlesque mock-treatment of the Nativity. Finally as a sort of epilogue or after-thought in deference to the Biblical origins of the materials, the play slides back into an atavistic mood of early innocent reverence. In actuality, the final scene is the culminating scene and also the raison d’etre of the introductory “realism.”
Superficially the present play supports the conventional view of its mood of secular realism. At the same time, the “realism” of the Wakefield Master is of a paradoxical turn. His wide knowledge of people, as well as books indicates no cloistered contemplative but one in close relation to his times. Still, that life was after all a predominantly religious one, a time which never neglected the belief that man was a rebellious and sinful creature in need of redemption . So deeply (one can hardly say “naively” of so sophisticated a writer) and implicitly religious is the Master that he is less able (or less willing) to present actual history realistically than is the author of the Brome Abraham and Isaac. His historical sense is even less realistic than that of Chaucer who just a few years before had done for his own time “costume romances,” such as The Knight’s Tele, Troilus and Cressida, etc. Furthermore, used highly romantic materials, which could excuse his taking liberties with history.

17. Of the following statements, which is not true of Wakefield Master?
A. He and Chaucer were contemporaries.
B. Wakefield Master is remembered as having written five or six realistic plays.
C. His plays realistically portray the plight of the country folk of his day
D. His writing was similar to that of John Steinbeck.
E. He was an accomplished artist.
Ans: D

18. The word ‘patristic’ in the first paragraph is used to mean:
A. patriotic    B. superstitious   C. folk   D. relating to the Christian Fathers    E. realistic
Ans: D

19. The statement about the “secularization of the medieval drama” (opening sentence of the second paragraph) refers to the
A. Introduction of religious themes in the early days
B. Presentation of erudite material
C. Use of contemporary materials
D. Return to early innocent reverence at the end of the play
E. Introduction of mundane matters in religious plays
Ans: E

20. From the following what would the writer be expected to do in the subsequent paragraphs:
A. Make a justification for his comparison with Steinbeck
B. Put forth a view point, which would take up the thought of the second paragraph
C. Point out the anachronisms in the play
D. Discuss the works of Chaucer
E. Talk about the lack of realism in the works of the Wakefield Master.
Ans: B

Section 2 -Analytical Ability
No. of Questions: 20
Duration in Minutes: 20

21.If f(x) = (x² – 50), what is the value of f(-5) ?
A. 75    B. 25   C. 0   D. -25   E. -75
Ans: B

22. Helpers are needed to prepare for the fete. Each helper can make either 2 large cakes or 35 small cakes per hour. The kitchen is available for 3 hours and 20 large cakes and 700 small cakes are needed. How many helpers are required?
A. 10   B. 15   C. 20   D. 25   E. 30
Ans: A

23. If f(x) = (x + 2) / (x-2) for all integers except x=2, which of the following has the greatest value?
A. f(-1)   B. f(0)   C. f(1)   D. f(3)  E. f(4)
Ans: D

24. A perfect cube is an integer whose cube root is an integer. For example, 27, 64 and 125 are perfect cubes. If p and q are perfect cubes, which of the following will not necessarily be a perfect cube?
A. 8p   B. pq   C. pq + 27   D. -p   E. (p – q)6
Ans: C

25. A piece of ribbon 4 yards long is used to make bows requiring 15 inches of ribbon for each. What is the maximum number of bows that can be made?
A. 8    B. 9    C. 10   D. 11   E. 12
Ans: B

26. If V = 12R / (r + R) , then R =
A. Vr / (12 – V)    B. Vr + V /12    C. Vr – 12      D. V / r – 12    E. V (r + 1) /12
Ans: A

27. The number of degrees that the hour hand of a clock moves through between noon and 2.30 in the afternoon of the same day is
A. 720    B. 180    C. 75    D. 65    E. 60
Ans: C

28. (3x + 2) (2x – 5) = ax² + kx + n .What is the value of a – n + k ?
A. 5    B. 8    C. 9    D. 10    E. 11
Ans: A

29. If the radius of a circle is increased by 20% then the area is increased by :
A. 44%    B. 120%    C. 144%    D. 40%    E. None of the above
Ans: A

30. If the area of two circles are in the ratio 169 : 196 then the ratio of their radii is
A. 10 : 11    B. 11 : 12    C. 12 : 13    D. 13 : 14    E. None of the above
Ans: D

Directions for Questions 31-34: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II . consider the statement and decide which of the given  assumption is implicit.
Give answer (A) if only I is implicit ; (B) if only assumption II is implicit; (C) If either I or II is implicit ; (D) if neither I nor II is implicit (E) if both I and II are implicit.

31. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions:
I At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
II The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
Ans: A

32. Statement: The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on computer peripherals
Assumptions:
I  The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go up near future
II The domestic manufacturers may  oppose the decision
Ans: D

33. Statement:” AS there is a great demand, every person take tickets of the programme will be given only five tickets”.
Assumptions:
I The organizers are not keen on selling the tickets.
II No one is interested in getting more than five tickets
Ans: D

34. Statement: The railway authorities are decided to increase the freight charges by 10% in view of the possibility of  incurring losses in the current financial year.
Assumptions:
I The volume of freight during the remaining period may remain same.
II The amount so obtained may set off a part or total of the estimated deficit
Ans: B

35.There are 4 boys and 3 girls. What is the probability the boys and girls sit alternately?
Ans: 1/35

36. Two trains are 2 kms apart. Speed of one train is 20m/s and the other train is running at 30 m/s .
Lengths of the trains are 200 and 300m. In how much time do the trains cross each other?
Ans: 50 seconds

37. A train runs first half of the distance at 40 km/hr and the remaining half at 60 km/hr. What is the
average speed for the entire journey?
Ans: 48km/hr

38.A box contains 90 mts each of 100 gms and 100 bolts each of 150 gms. If the entire box weighs 35.5 kg., then the weight of the empty box is :
A. 10 kg    B. 10.5 kg    C. 11 kg    D. 11.5 kg    E. None of the above
Ans: D

39. A father is three times as old as his son. After fifteen years the father will be twice as old as his son’s age at that time. Hence the father’s present age is
A. 36    B. 42    C. 45    D. 48    E. None of the above
Ans: C

40. Which of the following is the greatest ?
A. 40% of 30    B. 3/5 of 25    C. 6.5% of 200    D. Five more than the square of 3    E. 1/2-4
Ans: E

Directions for Questions 41-45: Follow the directions given below to answer the questions that follow. Your answer for each question below would be: A, if ALL THREE items given in the question are exactly ALIKE. B, if only the FIRST and SECOND items are exactly ALIKE. C, if only the FIRST and THIRD items are exactly ALIKE. D, if only the SECOND and THIRD items are exactly ALIKE. E, if ALL THREE items are DIFFERENT.

41) 0427-4567324, 0427-4567154,  0427-4567324
A) A     B) B    C) C    D) D    E) E
Ans: C

42)HHMKKKJKNOII, HHMKKKJKNOII,  HHMKKKJKNOII
A) A     B) B    C) C    D) D    E) E
Ans: A

43) YXXYXXYXYY, YXXYYXYXYY, YXXYXXYXXY
A) A     B) B    C) C    D) D    E) E
Ans: E

44) 7661637.8787, 7666137.8787, 7666137.8787
A) A     B) B    C) C    D) D    E) E
Ans: D

45)101100110.0101, 101100110.0101, 101100100.0101
A) A     B) B    C) C    D) D    E) E
Ans: B

Directions for Questions 46-50:  What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following number series?
46. 992    1056    ?    1190    1260    1332
A. 1112     B. 1082     C. 1134    D. 1092    E. None of these
Ans: E

47. 15625    6250    2500    1000    ?    160
A. 600     B. 400    C. 500    D. 650    E. None of these
Ans: B

48. 80    370    ?    1550    2440    3530
A. 900    B. 840    C. 750    D. 860    E. None of these
Ans: D

49. 15    51    216    1100    ?    46452
A. 6630   B. 6650    C. 6560    D. 6530    E. None of these
Ans: A

50. 24    28    36    52    84    ?
A. 144    B. 135     C. 148    D. 140    E. None of these
Ans: C

Directions for Questions 51-55: Read the following instructions carefully and answer the questions given below it:
From a group of six boys M,N,O,P,Q,R and five girls G,H,I,J,K a team of six is to be selected .Some of the criteria of selection are as follows:
M and J go together
O cannot be placed with N
I cannot go with J
N goes with H
P and Q have to be together
K and R go together
Unless otherwise stated, these criteria are applicable to all the following questions:

51. If the team consists of 2 girls and I is one of them, the other members are
A. GMRPQ    B. HNOPQ   C. KOPQR   D. KRMNP
Ans: C

52. If the team has four boys including O and R, the members of the team other than O and R are
A. HIPQ    B. GKPQ    C. GJPQ    D. GJMP
Ans: B

53. If four members are boys, which of the following cannot constitute the team?
A. GJMOPQ    B. HJMNPQ   C. JKMNOR   D. JKMPQR
Ans: C

54. If both K and P are members of the team and three boys in all are included in the team, the members of the team other than K and P are
A. GIRQ    B. GJRM     C. HIRQ    D. IJRQ
Ans: A

55. if the team has three girls including J and K, the members of the team other than J and K are
A. GHNR     B. MNOG    C. MORG    D. NHOR
Ans: C

ACCENTURE PAPER 4

Directions for Questions 1-3: Choose the option which will correctly fill the blank.

1. My home town ___ California is a wonderful place to live. I live ______ a suburb not far from a busy city.  ___ ___a fast pace
A. at, in
B. in, at
C. in, in
D. at, on
Ans: C

2. In the evening, all the kids _____  our neighborhood play ball on the street. Some play basketball _______  a court marked by  chalk. Others play ping-pong ______a neighbor’s garage
A. at, out, in
B. in, on, in
C. at, on , in
D. in, on, at
Ans: B

3. Mary goes ________ school _______ 9 O’clock ______bus.
A. to,  at, by
B. to, in, by
C. to, at, by
D. to, in, with
Ans: C

Directions for Questions 4-6: Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word in ITALICS from the given options

4. The man  vehemently denied all the charges of corruption that were leveled against him
A. Forcefully    B. Serenely     C. Devoutly    D. Hysterically    E. None of these
Ans: A

5. The notice said that the meeting would begin precisely at 9.00 am.
A. Exactly       B. Accurately   C. Concisely   D. Approximately     E. None of these
Ans: A

6. The art movie I watched this evening has put me in a pensive mood
A. Confused    B. Depressed C. Cheerful    D. Reflective    E. None of these
Ans: D

Directions for Questions 7-10: Choose the answer option which will correctly fill the blank.

7) They are ___ group of law breakers living in _____ heart of this city
A) the, a    B) The, the    C) A, the    D) in, the

8) The US is ______ open economy and _____ strong proponent of free trade globally..
A) an, a      B) The, the    C) a, the    D) in, the
Ans : A

9) _______ study compares office occupancy costs in 202 key locations across 57 countries around ______ world.
A)  the, an     B)  the, the  C)  an, the    D) a, the
Ans: B

10) It is pleasant to have ______sleep in  ______ afternoon
A) a, a   B) A, an   C) An, the     D) a, the
Ans: C

Directions for Questions 11-15: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
No effort is made to understand the reasons for these recurring disasters. Nobody has or the time or the inclination to understand the reasons. Unless and until we make an effort to understand these disasters will continue year after year with ever-increasing intensity.
The paramount need of day is “information, education, and planning”. Information would mean  gathering data from all over the world about environmental degradation, loss of forest cover or mangroves, and pollution of all kinds. Education would mean informing the rules the mankind the reasons for these distressed. People must be made aware of the phenomenon of global warming. The vaporous by products of human activities create gas, like carbon dioxide-CO2 – which traps vast amount of heat resulting in the increase of earth’s temperature, which boosts sea-level, shifts seasons. Unseasonal floods, rains, droughts etc. are the direct pattern of seasons but not so under E1 Nino. Increase of two degrees in global warming can cause a havoc. Greenhouse effect is another phenomenon, which haunts us, incoming sunlight has an energy equivalent to about 3,100 watts bulbs per sq yard. Lower air layers, which contain a number of gases, water vapour , CO2 and many others, trap the heat when these gases warm up, some of the heat is radiated back to earth ‘s surface. This is broadly known as green effect. CO2 emission accounts for 60 percent of warming and has a life span of about 100 years in the atmosphere. Water vapour in contrast has a life span of eight days only. Ozone-level depletion is another cause of series concern as it causes killer cancer for which as yet there is no cure. Once we understand the causes, it is easy to take to remedial measures. This brings us to planning. Effluent management planning is the dire need of the day. There should be steering committee of governmental ministers, scientists, industries, NGOs, to devise means to develop and install machineries to prevent major cause of polluting effluents mentioned earlier. Within a time-bound framework, these devices must be installed, failing which the erring industries must be closed down. No new industries should be permitted without efficient effluent management and treatment. Chemical pesticides should be phased out gradually. Indian farmer for centuries depended upon organic fertilizers. Let us opt for them again. Recently, studies showed that mother ‘s milk has DDT contents, obviously from consuming food having agrochemicals or pesticides. The indiscriminate use of pesticides kills both predatory and beneficial insects also. Let us bring back use of Neem for pesticides, which kills only predatory insects, or Tulsi for cleaning the atmosphere from suffocating pollution. Planting these trees on war footing in the urgent need of the day. A country needs more than 30 percent forest cover. Trees retain water in soil and act as buffers against the waves. They are necessary for maintaining the regular cycle of seasons. India has less than 20 percent of forest cover. All this is possible if we opt for information technology. Vast sources of information are available. Let us use them to bring the knowledge to the doorstep of a common man, the executive, the politicians and the judiciary. Environment is a finely-tuned and extremely well –balanced ecological mechanism. Flora and fauna, birds, animals and, of course, humans play a vital role. Touch one adversely and all suffer. We are courting irreversible disaster. We have turned our back on Nature. Let us go back to Nature- at least for our survival.

11. According to the author, the various constituents of the environment are
A. Supplementary    B. Independent    C. Mutually in exclusive   D. Interdependent
Ans: D

12. According to the author, the first step toward any remedy is
A. Understanding the cause
B. Analysis of the existent resources
C. Planning
D. Sound implementation of ideas
Ans:A

13. Which of the following is not inferable from the passage?
I. Cancer is Incurable.
II. The present nature of men’s interaction is unsustainable.
III. Mother’s milk is not advisable.
A.  I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. All I, II and III
Ans: B

14. Which is the main culprit that causes greenhouse effect?
A. incoming sunlight
B. trapping gases
C. gaseous radiation
D. lower air-layers
Ans: C

15. India’s forest cover is roughly
A. Half of what is needed
B. Adequate
C. Adequate for mangroves
D. None of these
Ans: A

16. Which of the following would not get the author’s support, in your view?
A. Genetically modified rice for eating
B. Food grains produced by robots
C. Drinks containing artificial flavors and preservations
D. All of the above
Ans: D

Directions for Questions 17-20:
One recent example of industrial hyper growth has taken place in the recycling industry, led by the rapid expansion of the recycled paper market. Though many laws were enacted in the late 1980s to encourage (and in some cases require) the collection of waste paper for recycling, there were not, at that time, companies with sufficient capacity to recycle it all. Consequently the collected paper accumulated in storage, usually at the expense of the recycling companies, thereby adding to their overhead and squeezing their already thin profit margins. Today a different situation exists. Fifty-seven new paper mills have been built since 1991, and of these, at least twenty-nine use recycled fiber. This surge in capacity has resulted in a concurrent rise in profits. The price per Ton of waste paper has quadrupled in the past year, as have the prices of corrugated cardboard and used newsprint. Trash haulers have benefited from these conditions by combining their trash hauling and recycling operations. Recycling centers are connected both to the clients to whom they sell end products and to those from whom they collect refuse; thus, the company gets paid twice for the same trash, once for hauling the waste and once for selling the usable material. Industry profits have increased more than tenfold during this period. As the industry has become more competitive, some haulers have chosen to rebate a portion of this money to their clients in the hopes of ensuring their loyalty.

17. According to the passage, which of the following is a reason for the increase in profits in the trash hauling business?
A Haulers’ ability to sell both services and products.
B Money offered by haulers to preferred customers.
C Foresight exhibited by the leaders of the industry.
D Haulers’ willingness to adapt technology to a changing industry.
E Passage of stricter environmental legislation.

18. It can be inferred from the passage that the price of waste paper
A will increase steadily over the next few years
B will increase as more companies get involved in the industry
C is closely related to the availability of trash haulers
D is not as important to trash haulers as the price they charge for hauling waste
E is sometimes set by the weight of the product

19. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following?
A. Competition between trash haulers and recyclers will prevent the recycled paper industry from reaching its full
economic potential.
B. Pressure from anti-environmental groups has increased pressure on the government to oppose recycled paper
initiatives.
C. The recycled paper industry may continue to grow at its present rate as long as the industry remains profitable.
D. The profit-seeking of recyclers have overshadowed environmental concerns in the recycled paper industry.
E. Government negligence prevented the recycled paper industry from becoming successful until the early 1990’s.

20. According to the passage, all of the following are results of the increase in the number of new mills using recycled finer except
A. The price of waste paper has risen dramatically.
B. Trash haulers are earning increased revenues.
C. Profits at recycling centers have increased more than tenfold.
D. The price of corrugated cardboard has risen.
E. Trash haulers have been forced to compete with recyclers.

Section 2: Analytical Ability
No. of Questions: 20
Duration in Minutes: 20

21. A can do a piece of work in 36 days, B in 54 days and C in 72 days. All of them began together but A left 8 days and B left 12 days before the completion of the work. How many days in all did C put in till the entire work was
finished?
A. 48 days   B. 24 days     C. 12 days   D. None
Ans: B

22.  A person travels through 5 cities – A, B, C, D, E. Cities E is 2 km west of D. D is 3 km north-east of A. C is 5km north of B and 4 km west of A. If this person visits these cities in the sequence B – C – A – E – D, what is the effective distance between cities B and D?
A. 13 km     B. 9 km     C. 10 km      D. 11 km
Ans: A

23. The horizontal distance of a kite from the boy flying it is 30 m and 50 m of cord is out from the roll. If the wind moves the kite  horizontally at the rate of 5 km per hour directly away from the boy, how fast is the cord being released?
A. 3 km per hour     B. 4 km per hour   C. 5 km per hour    D. 6 km per hour
Ans: D

24. Two liquids A and B are in the ratio 5 : 1 in container 1 and in container 2, they are in the ratio 1 : 3. In what ratio should the contents of the two containers be mixed so as to obtain a mixture of A and B in the ratio 1 : 1?
A. 2 : 3       B. 4 : 3    C. 3 : 2     D. 3 : 4
Ans: D

25. A closed wooden box of thickness 0.5 cm and length 21 cm, width 11 cm, and height 6 cm, is panted on the inside. The cost  of  painting is Rs 70. What is the rate of painting in rupees per sq. cm?
A. 0.7     B. 0.5     C. 0.1       D. 0.2
Ans: C

26. If a number 774958A96B is to be divisible by 8 and 9, the values of A and B, respectively, will be:
A. 7,8    B. 8,0    C. 5,8      D. None of these
Ans: C

27. The price of a Maruti car rises by 30% while the sales of the car came down by 20%. What is the percent change in the total revenue?
1. 4      2. -2     3. + 4    4. 0
Ans: C

28. A man travels three-fifths of distance AB at a speed of 3a, and the remaining at a speed of 2b. If he goes from B to A and back at a speed of 5c in the same time, then:
A. 1/a + 1/b = 1/c
B. a + b = c
C. 1/a + 1/b = 2/c
D. None of these
Ans: C

29. A cube of side 12 cm is painted red on all the faces and then cut into smaller cubes, each of side 3 cm. What is the total number of smaller cubes having none of their faces painted?
A. 16    B. 8     C. 12      D. 24
Ans: B

30.I bought 5 pens, 7 pencils and 4 erasers. Rajan bought 6 pens, 8 erasers and 14 pencils for an amount which was half more than what I had paid. What percent of the total amount paid by me was paid for the pens?
A. 37.5%     B. 62.5%     C. 50%      D. None of these
Ans: B

31. A man has nine friends, four boys and five girls. In how many ways can he invite them, if there have to be exactly three girls in the invitees?
A. 320     B. 160  C. 80   D. 200
Ans: B

32.  In a watch, the minute hand crosses the hour hand for the third time exactly after every 3 hrs 18 min 15 seconds of watch time. What is the time gained or lost by this watch in one day?
A. 14 min 10 seconds lost
B. 13 min 50 seconds lost
C. 13 min 20 second gained
D. 14 min 40 second gained.
Ans: B

33. Two trains, 200 and 160 meters long take a minute to cross each other while traveling in the same direction and take only 10  seconds when they cross in opposite directions. What are the speeds at which the trains are traveling?
A. 21 m/s; 15 m/s
B. 30 m/s; 24 m/s
C. 18 m/s; 27 m/s
D. 15 m/s; 24 m/s
Ans: A

34. A, B and C can do a work in 5 days, 10 days and 15 days respectively. They started together to do the work but after 2 days A and B left. C did the remaining work (in days)
A. 1     B. 3       C. 5      D. 4
Ans: D

35. A can complete a project in 20 days and B can complete the same project in 30 days. If A and B start working on the project  together and A quits 10 days before the project is completed, in how many days will the project be completed?
A. 18 days     B. 27 days     C. 26.67 days     D. 16 days
Ans: A

36. f log 2 = 0. 3010, then find how many digits are contained in the number 256.
A. 15     B. 16     C. 17     D. Cannot be determined
Ans: C

37. After a discount of 11.11%, a trader still makes a gain of 14.28%. At how many percent above the cost price does he mark his goods?
A. 28.56%     B. 35%    C. 22.22%       D. None of these
Ans: A

38. The average marks of a student in ten papers are 80. If the highest and the lowest scores are not considered, the average is 81. If his highest score is 92, find the lowest.
A. 55      B. 60      C. 62      D. Cannot be determined.
Ans: B

39. The sum of the areas of two circles which touch each other externally is 153?. If the sum of their radii is 15, find the ratio of the larger to the smaller radius.
A. 4    B. 2     C. 3      D. None of these
Ans: A

40. A student gets an aggregate of 60% marks in five subjects in the ratio 10 : 9 : 8 : 7 : 6. If the passing marks are 50% of the maximum marks and each subjects has the same maximum marks, in how many subjects did he pass the exam?
A. 2      B. 3      C. 4       D. 5
Ans: C

Directions for Questions 41-45: Follow the directions given below to answer the questions that follow. Your answer for each question below would be: A, if ALL THREE items given in the question are exactly ALIKE. B, if only the FIRST and SECOND items are exactly ALIKE. C, if only the FIRST and THIRD items are exactly ALIKE. D, if only the SECOND and THIRD items are exactly ALIKE. E, if ALL THREE items are DIFFERENT.

41) YYIIYIYJIYJL, YYIIYIYJIYJL, YYIIYIYJIYJL
A) A     B) B    C) C     D) D     E) E
Ans:A

42) 1110001010010101.01101, 11100010110010101.01101, 1110001010010101.011101
A) A     B) B    C) C     D) D     E) E
Ans:E

43) PQPQPQPQPQQPPQPQ, PQPQPQQPQPQQPPQPQ, PQPQPQPQPQQPPQPQ
A) A     B) B    C) C     D) D     E) E
Ans: C

44) 77566141667811.122123, 77566141667811.122123, 775661141667811.122123
A) A     B) B    C) C     D) D     E) E
Ans: B

45) 0471-2245771, 0471-2246771, 0471-2246771
A) A     B) B    C) C     D) D     E) E
Ans: D

Directions for Questions 46-50: Follow the directions given below to answer the questions that follow. Seven instructors – J, K, L, M, N, P and Q – teach management courses at a premier institute in east India. Each instructor teaches during exactly one term: the first term, the second term, or the third term. The following conditions apply:
K teaches during the third term.
L and M teach during the same term.
Q teaches during either the first term or the second term.
Exactly twice as many instructors teach during the third term as teach during the first
term. N and Q teach during different terms.
J and P teach during different terms.

46. Which one of the following could be an accurate matching of instructors to terms?
A. M: the first term; P: the second term; Q: the first term
B. J: the third term; L: the third term; P: the third term
C. L: the first term; N: the second term; P: the third term
D. J: the first term; M: the third term; N: the second term
Ans: D

47. Which one of the following cannot be true?
A. L teaches during the first term
B. M teaches during the second term
C. M teaches during the third term
D. N teaches during the second term
Ans: A

48. If exactly one instructor teaches during the second term, which one of the following must be true?
A. J teaches during the third term
B. L teaches during the first term
C. M teaches during the third term
D. P teaches during the second term
Ans: C

49. Each of the following contains a list of instructors who can all teach during the same term EXCEPT:
A. J,K,M     B. J,L,M     C. K,L,P       D. K,P,Q
Ans: D

50. If more instructors teach during the second term than teach during the first term, then which one of the following instructors
must teach during the second term?
A. J     B. M     C. N      D. P
Ans: B

Directions for Questions 51-55: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follows.All the roads of city Z are either perpendicular or parallel to one another. The roads are all straight. Road, A, B, C, D and E are parallel to one another. Roads G, H, I, H, J, K, L and M are parallel to one another.

i. Road A is 1 mile east of road B
ii. Road B is 1/2 mile west of C.
iii. Road D is 1 mile west of E.
iv. Road G is 1/2 mile south of H.
v. Road I is 1 mile north of J
vi. Road K is 1/2 mile north of L.
vii. Road K is 1 mile south of M

51. Which of the following statements is necessarily true?
A. I is 1 mile north of L
B. D is 2 miles west of B
C. E and B intersect
D. M is 1.5 miles north of L
Ans: D

52. If E is midway between B and C, then which of the following statement is false?
A.  D is less than 1 mile from B.
B. C is less than 1.5 miles from D.
C. Distance from E to B added to distance of E to C is 1/2 mile.
D. D is 2 miles west of A
Ans: D

53. Which of the following possibilities would make two roads coincide?
A. L is 1/2 mile north of I
B. D is 1/2 mile east of A
C. I is 1/2 mile north of K
D. C is 1 mile west of D
Ans: C

54. If X is parallel to I & X is 1/2 mile south of J & I north of G, then which road would be ½ mile apart?
A. I and X b
B. X and H
C. J and G d
D. J and H
Ans: B

55. If road E is midway between B and C, then the distance between A and D is
A. 1/2 mile
B. 1 mile
C. 1.75 miles
D. 2.5 miles
Ans: C

ACCENTURE PAPER 3

Directions for Questions 1-3: Choose the option which will correctly fill the blank.

1) I am writing to enquire _____ the possibility of hiring a conference room at the hotel on the 2nd of September.
A) Of    B) About  C) Into       D) After
Ans: B

2) _____ having her lunch, she stood ______ the tree and waited _______ him.
A) With, below, for    B) After, under, for    C) Inside, further, to      D) About, across, into
Ans: B

3) The microscopic animals are the primary food for larval cod and their decline has meant that fewer fish are making it to adulthood to be caught_________ trawler men.
A) In        B) Into      C) By
Ans: C

Directions for Questions 4-6: Choose the word nearest in meaning to the word in ITALICS from the given options.

4) Reading of poetry is not congenial to his taste
A) Helpful      B) Preferable   C) suited    D) Beneficial
Ans: C

5)He was waned at the outset of his career
A) Middle   B) Entrance   C) end   D) Beginning
Ans: D

6) Apervading sense of ennui grips Gaurav
A) weariness  B) melancholy  c) anger   D) Anxiety
Ans: A

Directions for Questions 7-10: Choose the answer option which will correctly fill the blank.

7)It is the grasping of power-combined ______ the thirst______ fame, which constitutes ambition.
A) with, for    B) An, the     C) with, the     D) No article required
Ans: A

8) ________ Reserve Bank of India directed banks to closely watch _______spending through International Debit Cards.
A) A,the    B) The, the    C) The, a    D) in, the
Ans: B

9) The officer received _____ official letter from _____ Ministry of IT in _____ Central Government.
A) A, the, an    B) An, the, the      C) A, an, the      D) An, an, the
Ans: B

10) You CANNOT send out ______uneducated man into ______ world of technology and expect him
to perform.
A) An, an       B) A, an     C ) An, the     D) The, an
Ans: C

Directions for Questions 11-15: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.
The existence of mammals on the earth can be traced back to at least the Triassic time. The rate of development was retarded, till evolutional change suddenly accelerated in the oldest Paleocene. This resulted in an increase in average size, larger mental capacity, and special adaptations for different modes of life, during the Eocene time. Further improvement was seen during the Oligocene Epoch, with the appearance of some new lines and extinction of others. The Miocene and Pliocene times are especially significant as they mark the culmination of various groups and a continued approach toward modern characters. It is in the Miocene time that the mammals reached their peak with reference to variety and size.

The ability of the mammals to adapt to various modes of life finds a parallel in the reptiles of the Mesozoic time, and apart form their greater intelligence, the mammals apparently have not done much better than the corresponding reptilian forms. Undoubtedly the bat is a better flying animal than the pterosaur, but at the same time the dolphin and whale are hardly more fish like than the ichthyosaur. Quite a few of the swift-running mammals inhabiting the plains, like the horse and the antelope, must excel any of the dinosaurs. Although the tyrannosaur was a more weighty and robust carnivore than perhaps any carnivorous mammal, the lion and the tiger, by virtue of their superior brain are far more efficient and dangerous beasts of prey. It is significant to note that various species of mammals gradually adapted themselves to various kinds of lifestyles, some took to grazing on the plains and were able to run swiftly (horse, deer, bison), others started living in rivers and swamps (hippopotamus, beaver), inhabiting trees (sloth, monkey), burrowing underground (rodent, mole), feeding on flesh (tiger, wolf), swimming in the water (dolphin, whale, seal), and flying in the air (bat). Human beings on account of their superior brain have been able to harness mechanical methods to conquer the physical world and adapt to any set of conditions.

Such adaptation to different conditions leads to a gradual change in form and structure. This is a biological characteristic of the youthful, plastic stage of a group. It is seen that early in its evolutional cycle animals possess the capacity for change, but as the animal progresses in its cycle becoming old and fixed, this capacity for change disappears. The generalized types of organisms retain longest the ability to make adjustments when required, and it is from them that new, fecund stocks take origin-certainly not from any specialized end products. With reference to mammals, we see their birth, plastic spread in many directions, increased specialization, and in some cases, extinction; this is a characteristic of the evolution of life, which can be seen in the geologic record of life.

11. From the following, choose the most appropriate title for the above passage?
A. From Dinosaur to Man
B. Adaptation and Extinction
C. The Superior Mammals
D. The Geologic Life Span
E. Man, the Vanquisher of the Physical World.
Ans: B

12. According to the passage the chronological order of the geologic periods is:
A. Paleocene, Miocene, Triassic, Mesozoic
B. Paleocene, Triassic, Mesozoic, Miocene
C. Miocene, Paleocene, Triassic, Mesozoic
D. Mesozoic, Oligocene, Paleocene, Miocene
E. Mesozoic, Paleocene, Eocene, Miocene
Ans: E

13. From the above passage, we can infer that, the pterosaur
A. resembled the bat
B. was a Mesozoic mammal
C. was a flying reptile
D. inhabited the seas
E. evolved during the Miocene period
Ans: C

14. As inferred from the passage, the largest number of mammals were found in which of the following
periods?
A. Triassic period
B. Eocene period
C. Oligocene epoch
D. Pliocene period
E. Miocene period
Ans: E

15. Among the following statements, which statement, if true, would weaken the argument put forth in the first sentence of Paragraph 1?
A. It has been found that the tryannosaur had a larger brain, than was previously known.
B. Within the next thousand years, mammals will become extinct.
C. Recently certain forms of flying ichthyosaurs have been discovered.
D. It has now been proved, that the tiger is more powerful than the carnivorous reptiles.
E. It is now possible to double human mental capacity, by the use of certain recently developed computers.
Ans: A

Directions for Questions 16-20: Read the passage and answer the questions that follow on the basis of the information provided in the passage.

But man is not destined to vanish. He can be killed, but he cannot be destroyed, because his soul is deathless and his spirit is irrepressible. Therefore, though the situation seems dark in the context of the confrontation between the superpowers, the silver lining is provided by amazing phenomenon that the very nations which have spent incalculable resources and energy for the production of deadly weapons are desperately trying to find out how they might never be used. They threaten each other, intimidate each other and go to the brink, but before the total hour arrives they withdraw from the brink.

16)  The main point from the author’s view is that
A. Man’s soul and spirit can not be destroyed by superpowers.
B. Man’s destiny is not fully clear or visible.
C. Man’s soul and spirit are immortal.
D. Man’s safety is assured by the delicate balance of power in terms of nuclear weapons.
E. Human society will survive despite the serious threat of total annihilation.
Ans: E

17)  The phrase ‘Go to the brink’ in the passage means
A. Retreating from extreme danger.
B. Declare war on each other.
C. Advancing to the stage of war but not engaging in it.
D. Negotiate for peace.
E. Commit suicide.
Ans: C

18) In the author’s opinion
A. Huge stockpiles of destructive weapons have so far saved mankind from a catastrophe.
B. Superpowers have at last realized the need for abandoning the production of lethal weapons.
C. Mankind is heading towards complete destruction.
D. Nations in possession of huge stockpiles of lethal weapons are trying hard to avoid actual conflict.
E. There is a Silver lining over the production of deadly weapons.
Ans: D

19) ‘Irrepressible’ in the second line means
A. incompatible
B. strong
C. oppressive
D. unrestrainable
E. unspirited
Ans : D

20) A suitable title for the above passage is
1. Destruction of mankind is in evitable.
2. Man’s desire to survive inhibits use of deadly weapons.
3. Mounting cost of modern weapons.
4. Threats and intimidation between super powers.
5. Cowardly retreat by man
Ans: B

Section 2: Analytical Ability
No. of Questions: 20
Duration in Minutes: 20

21) A man said to a lady, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt”. How is the lady related to the man?
A) Daughter    B) Grand daughter   C) Mother   D) Sister
Ans: D

22) In a row of 60, if Ram is standing at 17th from the first, what is his position from the last?
A) 25     B) 43    C) 44     D) 45
Ans: C

23 A man is facing northwest. He turns 90 degrees in the clockwise direction and then 135degrees in the
anti-clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
A) East    B) West    C) North    D) South
Ans: B

Directions for Questions 24-26: Two statements are followed by 2 possible inferences. You have to point out which of the following answer choices applies to each of the following questions :
A. Only inference  I is followed.
B. Only inference II is followed.
C. Both inference I & II are followed.
D. Neither inference I nor II followed.

24. All horses are donkeys.  All donkeys are monkeys.
I. All horses are monkeys.
II. All monkeys are horses
Ans: A

25. No rice is food, No food is bread.
I. No bread is rice
II. No rice is bread
Ans: D

26. All papers are books,  Some papers are files.
I. Some files are books
II. Some books are files
Ans: B

Directions for Questions 27-30: Each row of letters or numbers has a rule connecting them. Write the next number or letter in the brackets.

27.    K  ,  A  ,  J  ,  B  ,  I  ,  C  ,  H  ,  (_ _ _) Ans: D

28.    N  ,  O  ,  M  ,  P  ,  L  ,  Q  ,  K  ,  R  ,  (_ _ _) Ans: J

29.    124  ,  62  ,  60  ,  30  ,  28  ,  14  ,  (_ _ _)Ans: 12

30.    1  ,  4  ,  9  ,  16  ,  25  ,  36  ,  (_ _ _)Ans: 49

31) A box contains 90 mts each of 100 gms and 100 bolts each of 150 gms. If the entire box weighs 35.5 kg., then the weight of the empty box is :
A. 10 kg    B. 10.5 kg       C. 11 kg     D. 11.5 kg
E. None of the above
Ans : D

32) In a group of 8 semifinalists, all but 2 will advance to the final round. If in the final round only the top 3 will be  awarded medals, then how many groups of medal winners are possible?
A. 20     B. 56   C. 120   D. 560     E. 720
Ans: B

33) The product of two positive numbers is p. If each of the numbers is increased by 2, the new product is how much greater than twice the sum of the two original numbers?
A. p-2    B. p    C. p+2    D. p+4     E. 2p+4
Ans: D

34) A father is three times as old as his son. After fifteen years the father will be twice as old as his son’s age at that time. Hence the father’s present age is
A. 36    B. 42    C. 45    D. 48    E. None of the above
Ans: C

35) If .2t = 2.2 – .6s and .5s = .2t + 1.1, then s =
A. 1     B. 3     C. 10    D. 11    E. 30
Ans: B

36) At 10 a.m. two trains started traveling toward each other from stations 287 miles apart. They
passed each other at 1:30 p.m. the same day. If the average speed of the faster train exceeded the
average speed of the slower train by 6 miles per hour, which of the following represents the speed of
the faster train, in miles per hour?
A. 38     B. 40    C. 44    D. 48   E. 50
Ans: C

37. on Thursday, Friday and Saturday was 240. If the temperature on Saturday was 270, what was the temperature on Wednesday?
A. 240    B. 210    C. 270  D. 300
Ans: D

38. What will Rs.1500 amount to in three years if it is invested in 20% p.a. compound interest, interest being compounded annually?
A. 2400    B. 2592    C. 2678    D. 2540
Ans: B

39. If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m and 168 m2, what is the length of the rectangle?
A. 17 m    B. 31 m    C. 12 m    D. 24 m
Ans: D

40. The proportion of milk and water in 3 samples is 2:1, 3:2 and 5:3. A mixture comprising of equal quantities of all 3 samples is made. The proportion of milk and water in the mixture is
A. 2:1    B. 5:1    C. 99:61    D. 227:133
Ans: D

Questions 41-42:

Successfully adjusting to one’s environment leads to happiness. War at a universal level war destroys the weaker people, who are the most unable to adjust to their environment. Thus, war at the universal level puts weaklings out of their misery and allows more space for their predators to enjoy life in a better manner. As those actions have to be performed, which maximize the level of happiness of the greatest number, war at a universal level should take place.

41. What response would the author of the above discussion come up with, in the case of the objection that the weaklings far exceed strong people?
I. He would respond with the statement that the person making the objection is a weakling.
II. He would respond by saying that weaklings will be miserable no matter what happens.
III. He would respond with the statement that the strong would be frustrated if the weaklings are destroyed.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. II and III only
Ans: E

42. The author’s discussion would be greatly if he agreed to which of the following?
I. Technology could change the environment.
II. War at the universal level would be an integral part of the environment.
III. It is possible for the strong to survive without suppressing the weak.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III only
Ans: A

Questions 43-45:

Three men (Tom, Peter and Jack) and three women (Eliza, Anne and Karen) are spending a few months at a hillside. They are to stay in a row of nine cottages, each one living in his or her own cottage. There are no others staying in the same row of houses.
1. Anne, Tom and Jack do not want to stay in any cottage, which is at the end of the row.
2. Eliza and Anne are unwilling to stay besides any occupied cottage..
3. Karen is next to Peter and Jack.
4. Between Anne and Jack’s cottage there is just one vacant house.
5. None of the girls occupy adjacent cottages.
6. The house occupied by Tom is next to an end cottage.

43. Which of the above statements can be said to have been derived from two other statements ?
A. Statement 1
B. Statement 2
C. Statement 3
D. Statement 5
E. Statement 6
Ans: D

44. How many of them occupy cottages next to a vacant cottage ?
A. 2    B. 3    C. 4    D. 5    E. 6
Ans: C

45. Which among these statement(s) are true ?
I. Anne is between Eliza and Jack.
II. At the most four persons can have occupied cottages on either side of them. .
III. Tom stays besides Peter.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
Ans: C

46. Three friends divided some bullets equally. After all of them shot 4 bullets the total number of bullets remaining is equal to the bullets each had after division. Find the original number divided.
Ans: 18

47. Three men – Sam, Cam and Laurie – are married to Carrie, Billy and Tina, but not necessarily in the same order. Sam’s wife and Billy’s Husband play Carrie and Tina’s husband at bridge. No wife partners her husband and Cam does not play bridge. Who is married to Cam?
Ansr: Carrie is married to Cam.

48. At 6?o a clock ticks 6 times. The time between first and last ticks is 30 seconds. How long does it tick at 12?o.
Ans: 66 seconds

49. If you take a marker & start from a corner on a cube, what is the maximum number of edges you can trace across if you never trace across the same edge twice, never remove the marker from the cube, & never trace anywhere on the cube, except for the corners & edges?
Ans: 9

50. If the radius of a circle is increased by 20% then the area is increased by :
A. 44%     B. 120%    C. 144%    D. 40%   E. None of the above
Ans: A

51.  If 3/p = 6 and 3/q = 15 then p – q = ?
A. 1/3    B. 2/5    C. 3/10   D. 5/6    E. None of the above
Ans: C

52. If x, y, and z are consecutive negative integers, and if x > y > z, which of the following must be a positive odd integer?
A. xyz    B. (x – y) (y – z)   C. x – yz  D. x(y + z)  E. x + y + z
Ans: B

53. If p and q are integers, such that p<0< be must following the of which>
I. 2p<2q
II. p2< FONT>
III. p+q=0
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
Ans: A

54. A certain street has 1000 buildings. A sign-maker is contracted to number the houses from 1 to 1000. How many zeroes will he need?
Ans: The sign-maker will need 192 zeroes.

55. Re: If + means * and * means / and / means %. what is the value of 2+3*5/7?
Ans: 1